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Let's say I own a TV channel and I voluntarily play a commercial between my shows, like a Coca-Cola ad, without asking or making an advertising deal. Assuming I made a notice that they don't endorse me, could/would I be sued?

closed as off-topic by Michael Tiemann, Jim Mack, Dr Mayhem Apr 24 '16 at 4:22

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    Off-topic -- it's a legal question, not a video production question. – Jim Mack Apr 24 '16 at 2:38
  • Thank you for pointing that out. However, I see lots of copyright questions being asked here. – H. C. Barton Apr 24 '16 at 4:06
  • Concur that it's off-topic, but taking a stab: yes, you could be sued. You wouldn't have copyright permission to reproduce the ad. And if your use of the ad was against their marketing/brand strategy, they would be incentivized to stop you running their ads. – Gyan Apr 24 '16 at 8:19
  • Sorry for asking an off-topic question. For future reference, can someone explain how this was different from the other copyright questions? Thanks. – H. C. Barton Apr 26 '16 at 2:37
  • Laws for broadcasting are a completely separate category than copyright laws for video program production. You couldn't even own or operate a broadcasting station in most countries without extensive legal advice and assistance. Broadcasting any content for which you have no legal permission puts your broadcasting license in extreme jeopardy. No legitimate broadcaster would even dream of doing such a thing. – Richard Crowley Apr 26 '16 at 3:58

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